Behavioral Sciences Exam #1 2000

 

Answer the single best answer for the following questions.

  1. The concept that the values and beliefs of society and culture influence the patients health beliefs and medical model is known as which of the following?
    1. Cultural relativism
    2. Orthodox medical model
    3. Alternative medicine model
    4. Medical/biologic model

 

  1. Which of the following best describes health?
    1. Statistical values within 2 standard deviations of the mean in the population
    2. Absence of obvious defect or abnormality
    3. Ability to adapt to demands
    4. Utopia
    5. Absence of cell death

 

  1. Which of the following is not part of the sick role?
    1. The sick person is exempt from normal social-role responsibilities and activities. (Sick leave)
    2. The sick person is obliged to accept responsibility (blame) for becoming ill.
    3. The sick person is obliged to want to get well and to be compliant
    4. The sick person is obliged to seek technically competent help

 

  1. Which of the following Doctor-patient relationships is most likely to result in the complete informed consent for treatment?
    1. Activity-passivity model
    2. Guidance-cooperative model
    3. Teacher-student model
    4. Mutual participation model
    5. Friendship model

 

  1. A patient responds to the physician as though the physician is his father. Which of the following best describes this behavior?
    1. Transference
    2. Counter transference
    3. Oedipal conflict

 

  1. Which of the following is most correct?
    1. An hallucination is a perception based on a misinterpretation of an actual stimulus
    2. An illusion is a perception which arises without an actual stimulus
    3. Thought form represents how cognitions or thoughts are interrelated (how a patient’s thoughts are expressed)
    4. Affect is a feeling state that is prolonged and pervasive emotion
    5. Mood is a momentary expression of emotion and is easily identified by an observer.

 

  1. During a 30 minute psychiatric interview a patient exhibits wide swings in expressed affect and emotion. The emotional expressions seem to be excessive to the content but are related to the content of the patient’s speech. With of the following is least descriptive of the patients affect?
    1. Labile
    2. Constricted
    3. Congruent

 

  1. A fixed false belief unamenable to logical persuasion is best described as which of the following?
    1. Delusion
    2. Hallucination
    3. Illusion
    4. Culturally held belief
    5. Over-valued idea

 

  1. During an interview of a patient with psychosis you notice that he begins to mirror your movements. When you scratch your chin he scratches his chin for instance. Which of the following best describes this motoric behavior of the patient?
    1. Motor stereotypy
    2. Flexibilitis Ceruelea (waxy flexibility) a sign of catatonia
    3. Echolalia
    4. Echopraxia
    5. Motor tic

 

  1. During an interview the patient seems to jump from one topic to the next with no connection being apparent. Which of the following best describes his thought form?
    1. Pressured speech
    2. Flight of ideas
    3. Derailing
    4. Neologism
    5. Goal directed thought

 

  1. During an interview the patient exhibits an inability to accurately identify affect in your voice (receptive aprosodia). Which of the following brain behavior relationships is most likely involved?
    1. Damage to the left anterior hemisphere
    2. Damage to the right anterior hemisphere
    3. Damage to the left parietal lobe
    4. Damage to the right parietal lobe

 

  1. A right-handed patient is asked to demonstrate how to open a door with a key. He is able to do so with his right hand but not his left. Which of the following brain behavior relationships is most likely to be involved?
    1. Damage to the left parietal lobe
    2. Damage to the right parietal lobe
    3. Damage to the corpus callosum
    4. Damage to the left anterior hemisphere

 

  1. Gerstmann’s syndrome is most closely associated with which cerebral structure?
    1. Left angular gyrus
    2. Broca’s area
    3. Corpus callosum
    4. Nucleus basalis

 

  1. A patient exhibits a lack of motivation and drive. They are noted to have poor hygiene. In addition they have limited spontaneous speech. On exam they exhibit a palmer grasp, root reflex, snout and palmomental response/reflex. Which of the following is most likely true for this patient?
    1. They have a dorsolateral frontal lobe syndrome
    2. They have an orbitomedial frontal lobe syndrome
    3. They have Gerstamann’s syndrome

 

  1. Which of the following  is not considered a general type of behavior mediated by the hypothalamus?
    1. vegative/autonomic functions
    2. control of the endocrine system
    3. perceptual functions
    4. mediation of emotions and drives.

 

  1. Which of the following areas is least likely to support intracranial self stimulation?
    1. Septal nuclei
    2. Nucleus Accumbens
    3. Lateral hypothalamus
    4. Median forebrain bundle
    5. Dorsal forebrain bundle

 

  1. Satiety is generally thought to be mediated primarily by which of the following?
    1. Ventromedial hypothalamus
    2. Anterior hypothalamus
    3. Lateral hypothalamus
    4. Posterior hypothalamus

 

  1. In the prairie vole model of attachment which of the following is most correct?
    1. Attachment is promoted or mediated by vasopressin systems in the females
    2. Attachment is promoted or mediated by oxytocin in females
    3. Attachment can be blocked by vasopressin antagonist in females
    4. Attachment can be blocked by oxytocin antagonist in males

 

  1. Which of the following is most true regarding prolactin secretion?
    1. Dopamine agonists stimulates prolactin release
    2. Serotonin antagonists stimulates prolactin release
    3. Acetylcholine agonists inhibits prolactin release
    4. Dopamine antagonists stimulate prolactin release

 

  1. At 11PM a patient is given a milligram of dexamethasone. ACTH and Cortisol levels are very low. Which of the following is an appropriate interpretation of this finding?
    1. DST nonsuppression
    2. DST suppression
    3. Abnormal response diagnostic of major depression

 

  1. Which of the following is least correct regarding the differences in peptide and small molecular weight neurotransmitters?
    1. Peptide neurotransmitters are synthesized in the synaptic terminal
    2. Small molecular weight neurotransmitters are more dynamically responsive to moment-to-moment regulation demands at the synapse
    3. Co-localization of peptide and small molecular weight neurotransmitters is possible in some neurons
    4. Posttranslational modifications are important for peptide neurotransmitters

 

  1. Which of the following is a ligand gated channel?
    1. GABA a
    2. GABA b
    3. 5HT 2
    4. Alpha-1- noradrenergic receptor

 

  1. Which of the following is least correct regarding the role of calcium in synaptic functioning?
    1. During depolarization of the synaptic terminal calcium enters through voltage dependent gates or channels
    2. Calcium facilitates exocytosis
    3. Calcium inhibits the binding of the synaptic vesicles to the membrane
    4. The voltage difference between the resting membrane potential and the action potential is important in determining the amount of calcium which enters the synaptic terminal

 

  1. Which of the following is true regarding the phosphatidylinositol system?
    1. DAG stimulates Protein Kinase C
    2. IP3 is a product of DAG stimulation of PKC
    3. Gi protein is integral to IP3 activity in the cell
    4. Gs protein is integral to IP3 activity in the cell

 

  1. Which of the following is not considered a second messenger?
    1. IP3
    2. DAG
    3. Cyclic AMP
    4. Calcium
    5. Chloride

 

  1. Dopamine beta hydroxylase is the marker enzyme for cells which produce which of the following neurotransmitters in the central nervous system?
    1. Dopamine
    2. Norepinephrine
    3. Serotonin
    4. Epinephrine
    5. Acetylcholine

 

  1. Which of the following is the central metabolite of serotonin?
    1. Homovannilic acid (HVA)
    2. Vannillomandelic acid (VMA)
    3. Methyhydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG)
    4. 5 hydroxyindolacetic acid

 

  1. Which of the following is the primary enzyme in the metabolism of acetylcholine?
    1. Choline acyltransferase (CAT)
    2. Cholinesterase
    3. COMT
    4. MAO

 

  1. Which neurotransmitter is produced in the ventral tegmental area?
    1. Norepinephrine
    2. Dopamine
    3. Serotonin
    4. Acetylcholine

 

  1. Which of the following nuclei produce acetylcholine for use in the cerebral cortex?
    1. Pedunculopontine nucleus
    2. Nucleus basalis
    3. Locus ceruleus
    4. Nucleus accumbens

 

  1. Seasonal rhythms are best described as which of the following?
    1. Infraradian
    2. Ultraradian
    3. Circadian

 

  1. Which of the following stages of sleep is associated with K-complexes and sleep spindles?
    1. Stage 1
    2. Stage 2
    3. Slow wave sleep
    4. REM

 

  1. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is considered the pacemaker for the circadian rhythms?
    1. Supraoptic
    2. Suprachiasmatic
    3. Ventromedial
    4. Posterior
    5. Pineal

 

  1. Which of the following happens to melatonin during light therapy?
    1. Melatonin is suppressed
    2. Melatonin is released
    3. Nothing

 

  1. Which neurons increase their firing during REM sleep?
    1. Nucleus basalis
    2. Pendunculopontine
    3. Locus ceruleus
    4. Raphe

 

  1. REM latency is considered which of the following?
    1. Percentage of REM during the sleep cycle
    2. The time from sleep onset until the first REM period
    3. The time between REM periods
    4. The reduced amount of REM seen in the elderly

 

  1. Conscious cognitive memory is best described as which of the following?
    1. Procedural memory
    2. Motoric memory
    3. Cultural memory
    4. Declarative memory

 

  1. A patient is asked to perform ‘mirror writing’ on a daily basis. With each practice session his speed and accuracy improves. Which of the following is true regarding this acquisition of skill?
    1. It is an example of procedural memory
    2. It is an example of cognitive enhancement
    3. It is an example of declarative memory
  2. Which of the following examples the enhancement of memory by facilitation of one line of input onto the ‘memory’ cell by another type of input?
    1. Reverberating circuit theory
    2. Dynamic theory of memory
    3. Convergence theory of memory
    4. The engram theory of Lashley

 

  1. Using the Aplysia model Kandel showed that short-term habituation of memory was closely associated with which change in calcium?
    1. Reduced calcium influx
    2. Increased calcium influx
    3. Reduced synaptic activity zones
    4. Increased synaptic zones

 

  1. Restoration of the gill withdrawal reflex by the application of a surface electrical shock in the Aplysia model of Kandel is described most closely as which of the following?
    1. Procedural memory
    2. Sensitization
    3. Habituation
    4. Environmental uncertainty

 

  1. For glutamate to be active at the NMDA receptor which of the following must occur?
    1. Magnesium must be cleared from the calcium channel by a temporally linked excitatory stimulus
    2. Serotonin must cause an increase in camp concentrations
    3. Phencyclidine must be present in a coordinated fashion
    4. GABA must be present

 

  1. A patient suffers a severe injury to the right temporal lobe due to a vascular accident. An Arteriovenous malformation burst. She is subsequently noted to have a ‘personality’ change. Given the location of the vascular accident, which of the following types of memory is most likely impaired?
    1. Verbal memory
    2. Visual or spatial memory
    3. Procedural memory
    4. Declarative memory

 

  1. An electroencephalogram is done which confirms that she has a right temporal lobe seizure focus. This explains some of the emotional symptoms she has experienced. Which of the following is true regarding right sided temporal lobe epilepsy?
    1. Patients have an anterograde amnesia
    2. Patients have a retrograde amnesia
    3. Patients may have symptoms which resemble bipolar disorder
    4. Patients may have symptoms which resemble schizophrenia

 

  1. Approximately one year later the patient is admitted with a presumed vascular accident in the left temporal lobe. Neuroimaging confirms that her left amygdala has been severely damaged. Given that she had previous had destruction of the right amygdala and hippocampus which of the following is a likely outcome?
    1. Primarily a retrograde amnesia
    2. Primarily anterograde amnesia
    3. No effect on memory functioning

 

  1. A patient has just had a hip replacement. She is placed on 50 mg of Demerol (a potent narcotic analgesic) every 4 hours to be given as needed for pain. In order to obtain the Demerol injection she must press the nurses call button. Initially she is given the dose each time she presses the call button. Which of the following describes the reinforcement schedule described above?
    1. Random reinforcement
    2. Variable ratio reinforcement
    3. Continuous reinforcement.

 

  1. After a few days she notices that she no longer receives the Demerol immediately after pressing the call button. Because of the nursing shortage there is a lack of consistent nursing care. On some shifts she receives it after the first call on others she has to press the call button a number of times. It is not consistent. Which of the following describes the patient’s learning?
    1. This is an example of classical conditioning
    2. This is an example of instrumental or operant conditioning
    3. This is an example of fading or extinction

 

  1. A patient is diagnosed with cancer. She starts a course of chemotherapy as an outpatient. The therapy causes a great deal of nausea and vomiting. After the first few treatments she notices that she begins to get nauseated on route to the clinic before any chemo has been given. Which of the following best describes the learning that has taken place?
    1. Classical conditioning in which the chemotherapy is the unconditioned stimulus
    2. Classical conditioning in which the clinic is the unconditioned stimulus
    3. Operant conditioning with a continuous reinforcement schedule
    4. Social learning

 

  1. A mother complains of uncontrollable tantrums in her 4 year old child when shopping. She is very frustrated. She takes your advice and tries to ignore the tantrum on their next outing. Which of the following is likely to occur?
    1. Behavioral frustration with a subsequent increase in the tantrums initially
    2. Behavioral frustration with a rapid cessation of the tantrums
    3. The child will become depressed as an adult due to the withholding mother
    4. The child will likely become unsuccessful in adulthood because of his behavioral frustration

 

  1. In the past she explains that the child would stop his tantrum if given a candy treat. Which of the following describes the learning in the mother and the child?
    1. The child’s behavior is a positive reinforcement for the mother
    2. The child’s behavior is punishment
    3. The child’s behavior is a negative reinforcement for the mother

 

  1. During the acute phase of a stress response which of the following is most likely to be elevated in the urine?
    1. VMA
    2. HVA
    3. MHPG
    4. Tyramine

 

  1. Primarily which of the following mediates the delayed stress response?
    1. Insulin
    2. Corticosteroids
    3. Catecholamines
    4. Serotonin

 

  1. This examination would be considered which of the following?
    1. A conditional stressor
    2. An unconditional stressor
    3. Neither

 

  1. What effect would the chronic stress response have on a patient with diabetes mellitus?
    1. Relative increase in the effectiveness of insulin
    2. Relative decrease in the effectiveness of insulin

 

  1. Animal is placed in a cage in which the floor is given an intermittent electrical stimulus to shock the animal. There is no escape. Which of the following is least likely to occur with time? (OMITTED)
    1. Cellular immune markers will be decreased or impaired
    2. Nothing
    3. The animal will develop an equivalent to schizophrenia

 

  1. If the animal is removed from this cage and then placed in a cage in which the shock is escapable which of the following is most likely to occur?
    1. The animal will rapidly learn how to avoid the shock
    2. The animal will continue to exhibit hopelessness and not learn to avoid the shock
    3. The animal will begin to enjoy the shocks

 

  1. In the Geller Conflict Test (punished responding) which of the following is most likely to be true about a drug which increases punished responding?
    1. It is likely to be an effective antidepressant
    2. It is likely to be an effective atypical antipsychotic agent
    3. It is likely to be a sedative hypnotic agent
    4. It is likely to be an anxiolytic agent

 

  1. Which of the following is not a pharmacologic model of depression?
    1. Chronic amphetamine withdrawal
    2. Amphetamine toxicity
    3. Reserpine model
    4. Clonidine

 

  1. Which of the following is described by the following statement; ‘this animal model is useful in predicting whether a potential compound will be an effective antidepressant.’?
    1. Empiric validity
    2. Content validity
    3. Accuracy
    4. Precision

 

  1. Which of the following is not a component of the response to the maternal separation model of depression?
    1. Protest
    2. Despair
    3. Detachment
    4. Isolation

 

  1. Which of the following is considered to be less useful as a model of schizophrenia because of the difference in the types of hallucinations caused?
    1. Neurotoxin model
    2. Hallucinogen model
    3. Amphetamine intoxication model
    4. The Pycock model

 

  1. A subthreshold stimlus is given at repeated intervals. With time the response of the animal increases. Ultimately the animal begins to have a seizure with each stimulus. Which of the following is least likely to increase this response?
    1. Procaine
    2. Cocaine
    3. Lidocaine
    4. Amphetamine
    5. Valproic acid

 

  1. Which of the following is considered the to be a common feature of most known antidepressant treatments including ECT?
    1. Up regulation of the cortical beta receptors
    2. Down regulation of the cortical beta receptors
    3. Down regulation of the 5HT2 receptors
    4. Up regulation of the 5HT2 receptors

 

  1. Classic antipsychotic agents were identified as potential antipsychotics because of which of the following properties?
    1. They increased punished responding
    2. They decreased punished responding
    3. They induced catablexy and dystonia in mice (ie. made them stiff)
    4. They reduced prolactin secretion

 

  1. Anxiety and performance are correlated in which of the following ways?
    1. Linearly curve(increase anxiety, decrease performance at all levels of anxiety)
    2. Log-rhythmically curve (increase in anxiety causes an exponential decrease of anxiety
    3. U shaped curve (performance in enhanced by low anxiety or high anxiety
    4. Inverted U shaped curve (performance is best in the mid range of anxiety and worst at low anxiety or high anxiety)

 

  1. In the social models of depression such as the peer separation model, what effect does a low norepinephrine have on the response of the animal?
    1. Increases the target behaviors (depressive equivalents)
    2. Decreases the target behaviors (depressive equivalents)
    3. Protects against the target behaviors (depressive equivalents)
    4. Reduces punished responding

 

            A 26y/o woman presents to the emergency room on a Monday morning. She complains of severe pain in her chest during inspiration. She is accompanied by her 3 y/o son who appears to have a developmental delay. She is hesitant to describe the events of her injury and insist she hurt herself on the car door. On examination you notice several bruises which are of various ages. Suspecting spousal abuse you ask the SAFE questions.

 

  1. Which of the following is not one of the SAFE questions?
    1. Do you feel safe in your present relationships for yourself and your children? Have you or your children ever been harmed in your relationships? Should I be concerned for you or your children's safety?
    2. Are there situations where you have felt afraid? Has your partner ever threatened you or your children? How does your partner express frustration?
    3. Do you have friends you could tell if you felt abused?
    4. Where could you go if you needed to leave in an emergency? Are you in danger now?
    5. Are you practicing SAFE sex with your husband?

 

  1. Which of the following is most correct concerning domestic violence?
    1. The evaluating physician in the state of Arkansas reports all forms of domestic violence to the police.
    2. Most domestic violence is sporadic and is unlikely to recur
    3. Most victims of abuse provoke the attack
    4. an estimated 20-35% of women seeking ER care are victims of abuse
    5. an estimated 5-15% of women seeking ER care are victims of abuse

 

 

She is seen by the ER social worker and a plan is made to get her to a safe environment with her child. The social worker suggest someone examine the child as well. On exam the child is somewhat anxious but cooperative. He also has bruises of various ages and appears to have poor nutrition. X rays of the arms show old long bone fractures consistent with the battered child syndrome. You discuss this with the mother and she denies the child has been abused. You ask her permission to report the case as a suspected case of child abuse and she refuses.

 

  1. Which of the following is true?
    1. You must still have the mothers approval to report the suspected child abuse
    2. You may only report cases of proven child abuse
    3. You must report this case of suspected child abuse
    4. You must also report the Spousal abuse

 

  1. Which of the following is false?
    1. The most dangerous time for the woman is when she leaves the husband
    2. The majority of women are killed by their spouse
    3. Pregnancy is a particularly vulnerable time for spouse abuse
    4. Mental retardation is a risk factor for child abuse

 

  1. Which of the following is most significant in predicting her husbands potential for future aggression and violence in the short term?
    1. A history of assaulting his wife and child
    2. A low socioeconomic status
    3. Ethnic group
    4. Religious affiliation
    5. The presence of XYY karyotype

 

  1. Which of the following is most closely associated with description of 'Contact Comfort"?
    1.  Lorentz
    2. Harlow
    3. Pavlov
    4. Kandel
    5. Beck

 

  1. Which of the following is least likely to play a significant role in the Intracranial self stimulation model (ICSS)?
    1. Dopamine
    2. Norepinephrine
    3. Serotonin

 

  1. Which of the following is a genetic disorder in which the carrier state is disclosed by demonstrating endophenotypic expression in the carriers?
    1. Trisomy 21
    2. XYY
    3. XXY
    4. Phenylketonuria
    5. Huntington's disease

 

  1. Which of the following temperament clusters was found most often in the infants of the NY Longitudinal Study?
    1. Easy
    2. Slow to warm up
    3. Difficult
    4. Unspecified (infant did not fit any category)

 

  1. Which of the following reflexes refers to extension and abduction of the arms followed by flexion and adduction of the arms following a startle?
    1. Moro reflex
    2. Tonic neck reflex
    3. Palmar grasp
    4. Palmomental reflex
    5. Hoffaman's reflex

 

  1. Which of the following generally marks the end of the sensori-motor phase of development described by Piaget?
    1. Cooing
    2. Object permenance
    3. Object constancy
    4. Reduplicative babbling
    5. rapprochment

 

  1. During latency Freud described a reduction in the psychosexual drives of children. This occurred generally between 5 and 12 years of age (after the oedipal and before puberty). This period of time is described by Erikson as having a developmental crisis primarily involving which of the following struggles?
    1. Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
    2. Initiative vs Guilt
    3. Industry vs Inferiority
    4. Identity vs Role diffusion
  2. Erikson considered middle-aged adults to have characteristic developmental crisis involving which of the following struggles?
    1. Identity vs. Role Diffusion
    2. Intimacy vs. Isolation
    3. Generativity vs. Stagnation
    4. Integrity vs. Despair

 

  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding developmental disorders and mental retardation?
    1. There is a male predominance of mental retardation
    2. The diagnosis of mental retardation can be made on IQ measurement alone
    3. Rett's disorder is a found exclusively in females
    4. Rett's disorder is characterized by losses of previously acquired behaviors such as fine hand movement and social engagement.
    5. Fragile X syndrome is the second most common heritable form of mental retardation

 

  1. Which of the following is least correct according to the syllabus and lecture?
    1. 90% of marriages have at least one child
    2. 60% of second marriages end in divorce
    3. Divorced females remarry more frequently than divorced males
    4. The average age of first marriage in the US has been increasing over the last several decades.

 

  1. Which of the following is the least likely symptom to respond to estrogen replacement following menopause?(OMITTED)
    1. Thinning of the vaginal mucosa
    2. Hot flushes
    3. Night sweats
    4. Osteoporosis

 

  1. Which of the following is most closely related to children born to unwed mothers?
    1. Ethnicity of the mother
    2. Socioeconomic factors
    3. Ethnicity of the father
    4. Urban location

 

  1. Which of the following best describes reversal of affect as a defense mechanism typically used by teenagers?
    1. The teenager denies intense feelings of attachment left over from childhood by claiming enmity toward parents
    2. The teenager shifts the intense attachment toward parents to a boyfriend/girlfriend or teacher.
    3. The teenager shifts the attachment to the parents to themselves
  2. Which of the following is not considered one of the three major tasks of adolescence?
    1. Identity or role
    2. Independence
    3. Capacity to form adult relationships
    4. Generativity

 

  1. Which of the following describe partial emotional deprivation in infants who had been separated from their mothers and showed the above behaviors. (OMITTED)
    1. Hospitalism is a more severe form separation reaction in which the infant becomes completely passive with significant motor retardation, retarded development.
    2. Hospitalism has a mortality rate of almost 30% during the first year of life.
    3. Most infants recovered from separation reactions if the separation did not last more than a few months
    4. Anaclitic depression was a term used by Spitz (1946) to describe the partial emotional deprivation in infants who had been separated from their mothers.

 

  1. Which of the following was described by Daniel Offer in his study of adolescent development?
    1. Most teenagers had tumultuous growth with significant anxiety, depression, guilt and shame.
    2. Most teenagers had poor self image
    3. The Minority of teenagers had tumultuous growth with significant anxiety, depression, guilt and shame.

 

  1. Which of the following is least correct?
    1. The average age of first intercourse for teenagers is 16 years old
    2. Teenage mothers have a higher rate of obstetrical complications
    3. 2/3 sexually active females do not use contraception
    4. Suicide is the leading cause of death 15-19 years of age

 

89.  Which of the following is least correct regarding Child abuse?

a.       In some self reported surveys the incidence of childhood sexual abuse in women is as high as 27%

    1. Child abuse is far more common than child neglect
    2. Child abuse is more common in younger children than in teenagers
    3. Most child sexual abuse perpetrators are males
    4. Evaluation of the victims of suspected abuse requires care to avoid leading the child to specific allegations

 

90.  Which of the following does not describe the cognitive processes of preoperational children?

a.       Transductive reasoning attributes causality by the close relationship of events in time and space

b.      A belief in imminent justice explains why bad things happen

c.       Magical thinking is the belief that words , thoughts and wishes can cause events

d.      The ability to consider hypothetical possibilities to explain cause and events.

 

91.  In the adoptee's family method of genetic studies an index patient's adoptive and biologic parents are compared for concordance with the index patient's illness. A higher risk to the biologic parents relative to the adoptive parents indicates:

a.       Greater influence of heritable factors

b.      Greater influence of environment

c.       Lack of genetic contributions

 

Answers for matching questions 92-96

 

A. Repression

B. Displacement

C. Conversion

D. Sublimation

E. Reaction formation

 

 

During the medicine rotation a senior medicine resident is confronted on rounds by a somewhat hostile attending. The resident is berated for not being 'up on his patients'. The resident proceeds to berate third year medical student severely. It is considered traumatic to the student.

 

  1. When he comes home the student is unable to remember the traumatic event

 

  1. After rounds he tells his friends how much he likes the resident who berated him.

 

  1. The medical student becomes extremely angry with the resident. Unconscious fantasies of killing the resident occur and the student suddenly looses motor control of his right arm.

 

  1. The Resident is angry with the attending and takes it out on the medical student.

 

  1. The medical student returns the next day with copies of the most recent articles about his patients and becomes the best student on the rotation.

 

  1. Which of the following is least correct?

 

    1. The essential feature of Conduct Disorder is a repetitive and persistent pattern of conduct in which either the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated.
    2. Approximately 9% of boys and 2% of girls under the age of 18 years have Conduct Disorder.
    3. Conduct Disorder is more common in children of parents with antisocial personality and alcohol dependence than it is in the general population.
    4.  The essential feature of Oppositional Defiant Disorder is a pattern of negativistic, hostile, and defiant behaviors toward people in authority.
    5.  Stimulants such as methylphenidate are useful in the treatment of Conduct Disorder and Oppositional Defiant Disorder

           

  1. Which of the following treatments is least likely to be effective in managing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
    1. Methylphenidate
    2. Dextroamphetamine
    3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants

 

  1. Which of the following is practiced in the game Peekaboo?
    1. Object constancy
    2. Object permanence
    3. Social smile
    4. Conservation

 

  1. According to Vailant which of the following is a good prognostic sign for adult development?
    1. Good relationship with siblings during college years
    2. Lack of childhood traumatic experience
    3. Depressive disorder b/w 21 and 50 yrs